(PDF) ISC Cloud Security CCSP Exam and Certification Test Engine
Use CCSP Exam Dumps (2022 PDF Dumps) To Have Reliable CCSP Test Engine
Fee Structure for ISC CCSP certification exam:
- The fee for Cancelling the CCSP exam in the US $100/70£ /80€
- The fee for rescheduling the CCSP exam in the US $50/35£ /40€
Conclusion
Getting CCSP certified will not be easy, nevertheless, your right effort put in place with the right resources can help you excel at this exam. Make sure you cover all your learning objectives by referring yourself to the comprehensive study guides from Amazon and the test success is guaranteed.
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NEW QUESTION 213
What aspect of a Type 2 hypervisor involves additional security concerns that are not relevant with a Type 1 hypervisor?
Response:
- A. Programming languages
- B. Proprietary software
- C. Auditing
- D. Reliance on a host operating system
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 214
A process for __________ can aid in protecting against data disclosure due to lost devices.
Response:
- A. Device tracking
- B. User punishment
- C. Law enforcement notification
- D. Credential revocation
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 215
Humidity levels for a data center are a prime concern for maintaining electrical and computing resources properly as well as ensuring that conditions are optimal for top performance.
Which of the following is the optimal humidity level, as established by ASHRAE?
- A. 30 to 50 percent relative humidity
- B. 50 to 75 percent relative humidity
- C. 20 to 40 percent relative humidity
- D. 40 to 60 percent relative humidity
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The American Society of Heating, Refrigeration, and Air Conditioning Engineers (ASHRAE) recommends 40 to 60 percent relatively humidity for data centers. None of these options is the recommendation from ASHRAE.
NEW QUESTION 216
During which phase of the cloud data lifecycle is it possible for the classification of data to change?
- A. Use
- B. Create
- C. Archive
- D. Share
Answer: B
Explanation:
The create phase encompasses any time data is created, imported, or modified. With any change in the content or value of data, the classification may also change. It must be continually reevaluated to ensure proper security. During the use, share, and archive phases, the data is not modified in any way, so the original classification is still relevant.
NEW QUESTION 217
Within a federated identity system, which of the following would you be MOST likely to use for sending information for consumption by a relying party?
- A. HTML
- B. SAML
- C. WS-Federation
- D. XML
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) is the most widely used method for encoding and sending attributes and other information from an identity provider to a relying party.WS-Federation, which is used by Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS), is the second most used method for sending information to a relying party, but it is not a better choice than SAML. XML is similar to SAML in the way it encodes and labels data, but it does not have all of the required extensions that SAML does. HTML is not used within federated systems at all.
NEW QUESTION 218
What category of PII data can carry potential fines or even criminal charges for its improper use or disclosure?
- A. Protected
- B. Legal
- C. Regulated
- D. Contractual
Answer: C
Explanation:
Regulated PII data carries legal and jurisdictional requirements, along with official penalties for its misuse or disclosure, which can be either civil or criminal in nature. Legal and protected are similar terms, but neither is the correct answer in this case. Contractual requirements can carry financial or contractual impacts for the improper use or disclosure of PII data, but not legal or criminal penalties that are officially enforced.
NEW QUESTION 219
Which of the following is NOT considered a type of data loss?
- A. Stolen by hackers
- B. Accidental deletion
- C. Lost or destroyed encryption keys
- D. Data corruption
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation:
The exposure of data by hackers is considered a data breach. Data loss focuses on the data availability rather than security. Data loss occurs when data becomes lost, unavailable, or destroyed, when it should not have been.
NEW QUESTION 220
An audit scope statement defines the limits and outcomes from an audit. Which of the following would NOT be included as part of an audit scope statement?
- A. Billing
- B. Certification
- C. Exclusions
- D. Reports
Answer: A
Explanation:
Billing for an audit, or other cost-related items, would not be part of an audit scope statement and would instead be handled prior to the actual audit as part of the contract between the organization and auditors.
Reports, exclusions to the scope of the audit, and required certifications on behalf of the systems or auditors are all crucial elements of an audit scope statement.
NEW QUESTION 221
Which of the following represents a minimum guaranteed resource within a cloud environment for the cloud customer?
- A. Provision
- B. Reservation
- C. Limit
- D. Share
Answer: B
Explanation:
A reservation is a minimum resource that is guaranteed to a customer within a cloud environment. Within a cloud, a reservation can pertain to the two main aspects of computing:
memory and processor. With a reservation in place, the cloud provider guarantees that a cloud customer will always have at minimum the necessary resources available to power on and operate any of their services.
NEW QUESTION 222
When an API is being leveraged, it will encapsulate its data for transmission back to the requesting party or service.
What is the data encapsulation used with the SOAP protocol referred to as?
- A. Payload
- B. Object
- C. Envelope
- D. Packet
Answer: C
Explanation:
Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) encapsulates its information in what is known as a SOAP envelope. It then leverages common communications protocols for transmission. Object is a type of cloud storage, but also a commonly used term with certain types of programming languages.
Packet and payload are terms that sound similar to envelope but are not correct in this case.
NEW QUESTION 223
Cloud systems are increasingly used for BCDR solutions for organizations.
What aspect of cloud computing makes their use for BCDR the most attractive?
- A. On-demand self-service
- B. Broad network access
- C. Measured service
- D. Portability
Answer: C
Explanation:
Business continuity and disaster recovery (BCDR) solutions largely sit idle until they are actually needed.
This traditionally has led to increased costs for an organization because physical hardware must be purchased and operational but is not used. By using a cloud system, an organization will only pay for systems when they are being used and only for the duration of use, thus eliminating the need for extra hardware and costs. Portability is the ability to easily move services among different cloud providers.
Broad network access allows access to users and staff from anywhere and from different clients, and although this would be important for a BCDR situation, it is not the best answer in this case.
On-demand self-service allows users to provision services automatically and when needed, and although this too would be important for BCDR situations, it is not the best answer because it does not address costs or the biggest benefits to an organization.
NEW QUESTION 224
A data custodian is responsible for which of the following?
- A. Data content
- B. The safe custody, transport, storage of the data, and implementation of business rules
- C. Data context
- D. Logging access and alerts
Answer: B
Explanation:
A data custodian is responsible for the safe custody, transport, and storage of data, and the implementation of business roles.
NEW QUESTION 225
Before deploying a specific brand of virtualization toolset, it is important to configure it according to ____________.
Response:
- A. Vendor guidance
- B. Expert opinion
- C. Industry standards
- D. Prevailing law of that jurisdiction
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 226
Managed cloud services exist because the service is less expensive for each customer than creating the same services for themselves in a legacy environment. Using a managed service allows the customer to realize significant cost savings through the reduction of ____________.
Response:
- A. Data
- B. Personnel
- C. Security controls
- D. Risk
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 227
At which layer does the IPSec protocol operate to encrypt and protect communications between two parties?
- A. Transport
- B. Data link
- C. Application
- D. Network
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 228
Which of the following concepts is NOT one of the core components to an encryption system architecture?
- A. Data
- B. Software
- C. Network
- D. Keys
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The network utilized is not one of the key components of an encryption system architecture. In fact, a network is not even required for encryption systems or the processing and protection of data. The data, software used for the encryption engine itself, and the keys used to implement the encryption are all core components of an encryption system architecture.
NEW QUESTION 229
Which ITIL component is an ongoing, iterative process of tracking all deployed and configured resources that an organization uses and depends on, whether they are hosted in a traditional data center or a cloud?
- A. Problem management
- B. Availability management
- C. Configuration management
- D. Continuity management
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Configuration management tracks and maintains detailed information about all IT components within an organization. Availability management is focused on making sure system resources, processes, personnel, and toolsets are properly allocated and secured to meet SLA requirements. Continuity management (or business continuity management) is focused on planning for the successful restoration of systems or services after an unexpected outage, incident, or disaster. Problem management is focused on identifying and mitigating known problems and deficiencies before they occur.
NEW QUESTION 230
Which of the following is the best and only completely secure method of data destruction?
Response:
- A. Crypto-shredding
- B. Legal order issued by the prevailing jurisdiction where the data is geographically situated
- C. Physical destruction of resources that store the data
- D. Degaussing
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 231
Which of the following best describes a cloud carrier?
- A. The person or entity responsible for keeping cloud services running for customers
- B. A person or entity responsible for making a cloud service available to consumers
- C. The person or entity responsible for transporting data across the Internet
- D. The intermediary who provides connectivity and transport of cloud providers and cloud consumers
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A cloud carrier is the intermediary who provides connectivity and transport of cloud services between cloud providers and cloud customers.
NEW QUESTION 232
Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the ability to reuse or move components of an application or service?
- A. Reversibility
- B. Interoperability
- C. Portability
- D. Availability
Answer: B
Explanation:
Interoperability is the ease with which one can move or reuse components of an application or service.
This is maximized when services are designed without specific dependencies on underlying platforms, operating systems, locations, or cloud providers.
NEW QUESTION 233
Which of the following would make it more likely that a cloud provider would be unwilling to satisfy specific certification requirements?
- A. Resource pooling
- B. Regulation
- C. Virtualization
- D. Multitenancy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With cloud providers hosting a number of different customers, it would be impractical for them to pursue additional certifications based on the needs of a specific customer. Cloud environments are built to a common denominator to serve the greatest number of customers, and especially within a public cloud model, it is not possible or practical for a cloud provider to alter their services for specific customer demands.
NEW QUESTION 234
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