100% Pass Guaranteed Free CCSP Exam Dumps Oct 24, 2025 [Q30-Q47]

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100% Pass Guaranteed Free CCSP Exam Dumps Oct 24, 2025

Verified & Latest CCSP Dump Q&As with Correct Answers

NEW QUESTION # 30
When a data center is configured such that the backs of the devices face each other and the ambient temperature in the work area is cool, it is called ___________.
Response:

  • A. Thermo-optimized
  • B. Cold aisle containment
  • C. HVAC modulated
  • D. Hot aisle containment

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 31
What type of PII is controlled based on laws and carries legal penalties for noncompliance with requirements?

  • A. Jurisdictional
  • B. Regulated
  • C. Specific
  • D. Contractual

Answer: B

Explanation:
Regulated PII involves those requirements put forth by specific laws or regulations, and unlike contractual PII, where a violation can lead to contractual penalties, a violation of regulated PII can lead to fines or even criminal charges in some jurisdictions. PII regulations can depend on either the jurisdiction that applies to the hosting location or application or specific legislation based on the industry or type of data used.


NEW QUESTION # 32
Which data state would be most likely to use TLS as a protection mechanism?

  • A. Archived
  • B. Data in use
  • C. Data in transit
  • D. Data at rest

Answer: C

Explanation:
TLS would be used with data in transit, when packets are exchanged between clients or services and sent across a network. During the data-in-use state, the data is already protected via a technology such as TLS as it is exchanged over the network and then relies on other technologies such as digital signatures for protection while being used. The data-at-rest state primarily uses encryption for stored file objects.
Archived data would be the same as data at rest.


NEW QUESTION # 33
Each of the following are dependencies that must be considered when reviewing the BIA after cloud migration except:

  • A. The cloud provider's resellers
  • B. The cloud provider's suppliers
  • C. The cloud provider's vendors
  • D. The cloud provider's utilities

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The cloud provider's resellers are a marketing and sales mechanism, not an operational dependency that could affect the security of a cloud customer.


NEW QUESTION # 34
With IaaS, what is responsible for handling the security and control over the volume storage space?

  • A. Hypervisor
  • B. Operating system
  • C. Management plane
  • D. Application

Answer: B

Explanation:
Volume storage is allocated via a LUN to a system and then treated the same as any traditional storage. The operating system is responsible for formatting and securing volume storage as well as controlling all access to it. Applications, although they may use volume storage and have permissions to write to it, are not responsible for its formatting and security. Both a hypervisor and the management plane are outside of an individual system and are not responsible for managing the files and storage within that system.


NEW QUESTION # 35
The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) Top Ten is a list of web application security threats that is composed by a member-driven OWASP committee of application development experts and published approximately every 24 months. The 2013 OWASP Top Ten list includes "unvalidated redirects and forwards." Which of the following is a good way to protect against this problem?

  • A. Implement security incident/event monitoring (security information and event management (SIEM)/security information management (SIM)/security event management (SEM)) solutions.
  • B. Don't use redirects/forwards in your applications.
  • C. Implement digital rights management (DRM) solutions.
  • D. Refrain from storing credentials long term.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 36
Before deploying a specific brand of virtualization toolset, it is important to configure it according to ____________.

  • A. Prevailing law of that jurisdiction
  • B. Industry standards
  • C. Vendor guidance
  • D. Expert opinion

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 37
Which component of ITIL pertains to planning, coordinating, executing, and validating changes and rollouts to production environments?

  • A. Availability management
  • B. Release management
  • C. Change management
  • D. Problem management

Answer: B

Explanation:
Release management involves planning, coordinating, executing, and validating changes and rollouts to the production environment. Change management is a higher-level component than release management and also involves stakeholder and management approval, rather than specifically focusing the actual release itself. Availability management is focused on making sure system resources, processes, personnel, and toolsets are properly allocated and secured to meet SLA requirements. Problem management is focused on identifying and mitigating known problems and deficiencies before they occur.


NEW QUESTION # 38
Which type of cloud service category would having a vendor-neutral encryption scheme for data at rest (DAR) be the MOST important?
Response:

  • A. Public
  • B. Private
  • C. Hybrid
  • D. Community

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following practices can enhance both operational capabilities and configuration management efforts?
Response:

  • A. Constant uptime
  • B. File hashes
  • C. Regular backups
  • D. Multifactor authentication

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 40
What is the term we use to describe the general ease and efficiency of moving data from one cloud provider either to another cloud provider or down from the cloud?

  • A. Mobility
  • B. Elasticity
  • C. Portability
  • D. Obfuscation

Answer: C

Explanation:
Elasticity is the name for the benefit of cloud computing where resources can be apportioned as necessary to meet customer demand. Obfuscation is a technique to hide full raw datasets, either from personnel who do not have need to know or for use in testing. Mobility is not a term pertinent to the CBK.


NEW QUESTION # 41
BCDR strategies typically do not involve the entire operations of an organization, but only those deemed critical to their business.
Which concept pertains to the amount of data and services needed to reach the predetermined level of operations?

  • A. RPO
  • B. SRE
  • C. RSL
  • D. RTO

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The recovery point objective (RPO) sets and defines the amount of data an organization must have available or accessible to reach the predetermined level of operations necessary during a BCDR situation.
The recovery time objective (RTO) measures the amount of time necessary to recover operations to meet the BCDR plan. The recovery service level (RSL) measures the percentage of operations that would be recovered during a BCDR situation. SRE is provided as an erroneous response.


NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following types of software is a Type 2 hypervisor dependent on that a Type 1 hypervisor isn't?
Response:

  • A. VPN
  • B. Firewall
  • C. IDS
  • D. Operating system

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 43
Many of the traditional concepts of systems and services for a traditional data center also apply to the cloud. Both are built around key computing concepts.
Which of the following compromise the two facets of computing?

  • A. CPU and memory
  • B. Memory and networking
  • C. CPU and software
  • D. CPU and storage

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The CPU and memory resources of an environment together comprise its "computing" resources. Cloud environments, especially public clouds, are enormous pools of resources for computing and are typically divided among a large number of customers with constantly changing needs and demands. Although storage and networking are core components of a cloud environment, they do not comprise its computing core. Software, much like within a traditional data center, is highly subjective based on the application, system, service, or cloud computing model used; however, it is not one of the core cloud components.


NEW QUESTION # 44
A cloud provider is looking to provide a higher level of assurance to current and potential cloud customers about the design and effectiveness of their security controls.
Which of the following audit reports would the cloud provider choose as the most appropriate to accomplish this goal?
Response:

  • A. SOC 3
  • B. SAS-70
  • C. SOC 1
  • D. SOC 2

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 45
What does SDN stand for within a cloud environment?

  • A. Software-dynamic networking
  • B. Software-dependent networking
  • C. Software-defined networking
  • D. System-dynamic nodes

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Software-defined networking separates the administration of network filtering and network forwarding to allow for distributed administration.


NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following would probably best aid an organization in deciding whether to migrate from a legacy environment to a particular cloud provider?

  • A. Rate sheets comparing a cloud provider to other cloud providers
  • B. The cost/benefit measure of closing the organization's relocation site (hot site/warm site) and using the cloud for disaster recovery instead
  • C. SLA satisfaction surveys from other (current and past) cloud customers
  • D. Cloud provider offers to provide engineering assistance during the migration

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 47
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