Use NREMT EMT Dumps To Succeed Instantly in EMT Exam
Ultimate Guide to EMT Dumps - Enhance Your Future Career Now
NEW QUESTION # 156
A 42-year-old male states, "I can't breathe" after being shot in his upper thigh. Bystanders have applied direct pressure to his thigh and the bleeding is controlled. You should first
- A. Replace the bystander's dressing with sterile gauze
- B. Assess for other life-threatening injuries
- C. Administer oxygen
- D. Apply a tourniquet
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Thepatient's complaint of difficulty breathingis anairway/breathing issueand takes precedence over a controlled extremity bleed. The first action is toadminister oxygenand evaluate respiratory effort.
Though reassessing the wound is important,oxygenation is the prioritywhen airway compromise or respiratory distress is present. Tourniquets are foruncontrolled bleeding, which is not the case here.
References:
NREMT Trauma Assessment Guidelines
National EMS Education Standards - Primary Assessment Priorities
Brady Emergency Care (13th ed.) - Chapter: Patient Assessment
NEW QUESTION # 157
A 43-year-old patient is experiencing a sudden onset of coughing, nausea, and shortness of breath. The patient has a history of alcohol use disorder and major depressive disorder. The patient spent the day cleaning. The kitchen has food in various forms of decay. The patient's condition improves slightly once oxygen has been administered. Which of the following environmental factors is the most likely cause of the patient's presentation?
- A. Mold exposure
- B. Chemical inhalation
- C. Alcohol intoxication
- D. Food poisoning
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):
Sudden respiratory symptoms following prolonged cleaning strongly suggest chemical inhalation, particularly from cleaning agents such as ammonia or bleach. Mixing chemicals or using them in poorly ventilated areas can release toxic gases that cause coughing, nausea, and dyspnea.
Option D is correct because inhaled chemical irritants commonly cause acute respiratory distress that improves with oxygen therapy.
Option A typically causes chronic symptoms, not sudden onset.
Option B does not cause respiratory distress.
Option C does not explain the environmental exposure or oxygen response.
NREMT emphasizes recognizing environmental hazards and removing patients from the source while providing supportive care.
NEW QUESTION # 158
The police have placed a 20-year-old patient into custody. The patient is in handcuffs, is agitated, and is angry. The skin is hot and diaphoretic. The vital signs are BP 180/98, P 150, R 28, and SpO# 97% on room air. Which of the following actions would be appropriate for the EMT to take while transporting this patient?
Select the two answer options that are correct.
- A. Transport the officer with the keys to the handcuffs.
- B. Release the patient from all restraints.
- C. Allow law enforcement to transport the patient.
- D. Secure the patient face down on the stretcher if they are spitting.
- E. Remove the handcuffs and apply soft restraints.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
This is one of those EMS custody questions where the safest answer comes from remembering two transport rules at the same time: the patient needs medical transport , and the patient also needs safe restraint management .
Because the patient is being transported by EMS, the patient should be secured with appropriate medical restraints , not simply left in police handcuffs alone. That makes removing the handcuffs and applying soft restraints the proper EMS approach, provided law enforcement is involved in that process. Just as important, the officer with the key should ride along so the restraint situation remains safe and legally controlled during transport.
The rest of the scenario also hints that this patient may be medically unstable, not just angry. The hot, diaphoretic skin , marked tachycardia , and severe agitation raise concern for a serious behavioral or medical emergency, so EMS transport is appropriate. Also, NREMT-style operations questions consistently reject prone restraint because face-down positioning increases the risk of respiratory compromise during transport.
NEW QUESTION # 159
A 40-year-old patient is unresponsive following an electrical injury. What is the most likely cause of the patient's mental status?
- A. Seizure
- B. Cardiac dysrhythmia
- C. Internal bleeding
- D. Nerve damage
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):
Electrical injuries commonly disrupt the heart's electrical conduction system. NREMT teaching emphasizes that cardiac dysrhythmias are the leading cause of unresponsiveness following electrical exposure, even when external burns appear minor.
Option A is correct because electrical current can induce lethal dysrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation or asystole, resulting in sudden loss of consciousness.
Option B is incorrect because internal bleeding is not a primary consequence of electrical injury.
Option C may occur but does not typically cause immediate unresponsiveness.
Option D is less likely than cardiac involvement and is not the most common cause.
NREMT stresses continuous cardiac monitoring and rapid transport for all electrical injury patients due to the high risk of sudden cardiac arrest.
NEW QUESTION # 160
Which of the following is categorized as a personal injury prevention supply?
- A. N95 respirator
- B. Biohazard bag
- C. Disinfectant cleaning solution
- D. Pair of leather gloves
Answer: D
Explanation:
Personal injury prevention supplies are designed to protect EMS providers from physical injuries, rather than infection.
Option C (Pair of leather gloves) is correct because leather gloves protect against cuts, abrasions, and puncture injuries during rescue operations such as vehicle extrication.
Option D (N95 respirator) is personal protective equipment (PPE) for infection control, not injury prevention.
Option A and B are related to biohazard handling and decontamination.
NREMT differentiates PPE from injury-prevention equipment to ensure proper risk management.
NEW QUESTION # 161
A patient is having an asthmatic attack. The EMT receives orders from medical control to assist with the patient ' s inhaler. What are the expected side effects of this medication? Select the three correct options.
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Coughing
- C. Hypotension
- D. Nervousness
- E. Tachycardia
- F. Confusion
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
Albuterol, a common beta-2 adrenergic agonist used in inhalers, stimulates bronchial smooth muscle relaxation. However, stimulation of beta receptors can also produce systemic effects such as:
* Tachycardia (due to beta-1 cross-reactivity)
* Nervousness (from central stimulation)
* Coughing (a local airway response)
Confusion and drowsiness are not typical side effects of beta-agonists. Hypotension is rare unless severe overdose occurs.
References:
NREMT Scope of Practice Model - Medication Administration
American Heart Association BLS and ACLS Drug List
"Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured" (AAOS, 11th ed.), Chapter on Respiratory Emergencies
NEW QUESTION # 162
A 45-year-old patient has chest pain, shortness of breath, and skin that is cool and diaphoretic. The patient states they have a feeling of impending doom. Which of the following conditions should the EMT most strongly suspect?
- A. Congestive heart failure
- B. Chronic bronchitis
- C. Aortic aneurysm
- D. Myocardial infarction
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Myocardial infarction.
This question describes classic signs and symptoms of acute coronary syndrome (ACS), specifically a myocardial infarction (heart attack). Key findings include:
* Chest pain
* Shortness of breath (dyspnea)
* Cool, pale, diaphoretic skin
* Feeling of impending doom
These are hallmark features emphasized in EMT education for recognizing cardiac emergencies.
According to standard NREMT-aligned EMT educational content, patients experiencing myocardial infarction often present with:
* "Chest discomfort or pain... may be described as pressure, squeezing, or heaviness"
* "Dyspnea (shortness of breath)"
* "Diaphoresis (cool, clammy skin)"
* "A feeling of impending doom"
These findings occur due to decreased cardiac output and sympathetic nervous system activation, which leads to sweating, anxiety, and vasoconstriction (cool skin).
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. Aortic aneurysm: Typically presents with sudden tearing pain (often in the back), not the classic ACS presentation with diaphoresis and impending doom.
* B. Chronic bronchitis: A long-term respiratory condition characterized by cough and mucus production, not acute chest pain with diaphoresis.
* D. Congestive heart failure: Usually presents with fluid overload symptoms such as edema, crackles, and dyspnea, but not typically acute crushing chest pain with diaphoresis and impending doom.
Exact Extracts (NREMT-aligned EMT educational references):
* "Chest pain or discomfort... pressure, squeezing, or heaviness"
* "Shortness of breath (dyspnea)"
* "Skin may be pale, cool, and diaphoretic"
* "Patient may have a feeling of impending doom"
These combined findings strongly indicate acute myocardial infarction, making C the most appropriate answer.
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Cardiology & Resuscitation
NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) - Cardiac Emergencies Standard EMT Textbook (AAOS Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured, aligned with NREMT)
NEW QUESTION # 163
A 68-year-old patient has difficulty breathing and audible crackles. The patient has missed the last two dialysis appointments. The vital signs are BP 188/90 mmHg, P 120/min, R 24/min, and SpO# 92% on room air. Which of the following conditions should the EMT most strongly suspect?
- A. Fluid overload
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Bronchiolitis
- D. Ascites
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Fluid overload.
Missed dialysis # inability to remove excess fluid
Shortness of breath + crackles # fluid in the lungs (pulmonary edema)
Hypertension (188/90)
Tachycardia (120)
Low-normal SpO# (92%)
These findings strongly indicate fluid overload leading to pulmonary edema.
Patients who miss dialysis retain excess fluid
Fluid accumulates in the lungs # crackles and respiratory distress
Hypertension is common due to increased circulating volume
B). Bronchiolitis # Typically seen in infants/children, not adults
C). Pneumonia # May cause crackles, but does not explain missed dialysis + fluid retention + hypertension pattern D). Ascites # Fluid in the abdomen, not primarily causing lung crackles or acute respiratory distress
"Patients with renal failure who miss dialysis may develop fluid overload."
"Pulmonary edema presents with crackles and respiratory distress."
"Hypertension is commonly associated with fluid overload states."
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Medical Emergencies
National EMS Education Standards - Renal and Respiratory Emergencies
NREMT Candidate Handbook - Patient Assessment and Medical Conditions
NEW QUESTION # 164
While performing an initial scene size-up at a motor vehicle collision, what should the EMT determine?
Select the three answer options that are correct.
- A. Site for loading injured patients
- B. Mechanisms of injury
- C. Which patients have died
- D. If entrapment occurred
- E. Total number of patients
- F. Severity of the patients
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
The correct answers are A. Mechanisms of injury, B. If entrapment occurred, and D. Total number of patients.
During the scene size-up, the EMT performs an initial overview to ensure safety and gather critical information before patient contact. NREMT guidelines emphasize specific elements that must be identified early.
Key components of scene size-up include:
1. Mechanism of Injury (MOI) (A):
Helps predict potential injuries based on how the incident occurred
Essential for determining severity and treatment priorities
2. Entrapment (B):
Determines whether patients are physically trapped
Helps anticipate need for extrication resources and delays in care
3. Number of Patients (D):
Critical for determining if additional resources are needed
Helps identify potential mass-casualty incidents (MCI)
NREMT-aligned references state:
"Scene size-up includes determining the mechanism of injury."
"Identify the number of patients and need for additional resources."
"Determine if extrication or special rescue is required."
Why the other options are incorrect:
C). Severity of the patientsThis is determined during the primary assessment, not initial scene size-up E). Which patients have diedNot part of initial size-up priorities F). Site for loading injured patientsThis is part of incident management/transport decisions, not initial size-up Exact Extracts (NREMT-aligned EMT educational references):
"Determine the mechanism of injury or nature of illness."
"Determine the number of patients."
"Assess the need for additional resources and extrication."
Clinical Priority Summary:
Scene size-up focuses on environmental awareness and resource needs, specifically MOI, patient count, and entrapment, making A, B, and D correct.
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - EMS Operations (Scene Size-Up)
NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP)
AAOS Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured (NREMT-aligned)
NEW QUESTION # 165
An EMT is ventilating a 27-year-old patient who is unresponsive. There is a decrease in airway compliance.
Which of the following factors is the most likely cause?
- A. A low oxygen flow rate
- B. A poor face mask seal
- C. The patient ' s age
- D. Gastric distention
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Gastric distention.
Decreased airway compliance means there is increased resistance when ventilating the patient, making it harder to deliver breaths with a bag-valve mask (BVM).
Why A is correct:
Gastric distention occurs when air is forced into the stomach during ventilation, especially if:
* Ventilations are too forceful
* Ventilations are delivered too quickly
* The airway is not properly opened
This leads to:
* Increased pressure in the abdomen
* Upward pressure on the diaphragm
* Reduced lung expansion
NREMT-based airway management guidance states:
* "Gastric distention can impair ventilation by limiting lung expansion."
* "Excessive ventilation pressure may force air into the stomach, decreasing compliance." Why the other options are incorrect:
* B. A poor face mask seal: This causes air leakage, not decreased compliance. You would feel less resistance, not more.
* C. A low oxygen flow rate: Affects oxygen delivery, not airway compliance or resistance.
* D. The patient ' s age: A 27-year-old has no age-related compliance issues.
Exact Extracts:
* "Gastric distention increases resistance to ventilation and decreases lung compliance."
* "Air forced into the stomach can reduce the effectiveness of ventilations."
* "Proper ventilation technique is essential to prevent gastric inflation." References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Airway, Respiration & Ventilation
NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) - Airway Management
Prehospital Emergency Care (EMT) - Airway and Ventilation Management
NEW QUESTION # 166
A 77-year-old male presents with generalized aches and pain. He has been taking over-the-counter pain relief pills multiple times a day for the last 3 weeks. Your physical examination is most likely to reveal signs of
- A. renal failure.
- B. musculoskeletal failure.
- C. gastrointestinal failure.
- D. cardiovascular failure.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This question is getting at a very common complication of frequent over-the-counter pain reliever use in older adults, especially NSAIDs such as ibuprofen or naproxen. Those medications are well known to cause gastric irritation, ulcers, and gastrointestinal bleeding , and the risk goes up with higher doses, longer use, and older age . MedlinePlus specifically warns that NSAIDs can cause ulcers, bleeding, or holes in the stomach or intestines, sometimes without much warning. ( MedlinePlus ) So on an EMT exam, the system most likely to show abnormal findings after this history is the gastrointestinal system . In practical terms, that means you would be alert for findings such as abdominal tenderness, dark or tarry stools, vomiting blood, or signs of GI bleeding . ( MedlinePlus )
NEW QUESTION # 167
Which of the following assessment findings indicates respiratory failure?
- A. Diaphoresis
- B. Accessory muscle use
- C. Rapid respiratory rate
- D. Altered mental status
Answer: D
Explanation:
NREMT distinguishes respiratory distress from respiratory failure. Respiratory distress includes compensatory signs such as tachypnea, accessory muscle use, and diaphoresis. Respiratory failure occurs when those compensatory mechanisms fail and the body can no longer maintain adequate oxygenation or ventilation.
Option D (Altered mental status) is the most reliable indicator of respiratory failure. According to NREMT, hypoxia and hypercapnia directly affect brain function, leading to confusion, agitation, lethargy, or unresponsiveness. This indicates that oxygen delivery to the brain is no longer adequate.
Option A is common in early respiratory distress.
Option B indicates increased work of breathing but not failure.
Option C reflects sympathetic activation, not failure.
NREMT teaches that mental status changes are late and ominous signs, requiring immediate airway and ventilatory support.
NEW QUESTION # 168
Which of the following sections are designated by command at an MCI? Select the three correct options.
- A. Staging
- B. Catering
- C. Finance
- D. Planning
- E. Logistics
- F. Aviation
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
InIncident Command System (ICS)for Mass Casualty Incidents (MCI), the four major sections are:
* Planning: Collects data and develops response strategies
* Logistics: Supplies and personnel
* Finance/Administration: Cost tracking, contracts, compensation
Stagingis atactical location, not a management section.Catering and aviationare not command-level ICS designations unless part of specific tasks under logistics or operations.
References:
NIMS ICS Framework - FEMA (ICS-100/700)
NREMT EMS Operations - MCI Command Structure
National EMS Education Standards - Incident Management
NEW QUESTION # 169
A 44-year-old patient with diabetes feels weak and dizzy. The EMT provides oral glucose and transports the patient to the hospital, where the patient recovers. The EMT tells their partner they did not provide the patient with a blanket because they felt the patient was wasting their time. What best describes the action the EMT took?
- A. Breach of duty
- B. Negligence
- C. Breach of ethics
- D. Battery
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Breach of ethics.
This scenario describes inappropriate attitude and professional behavior by the EMT, not a failure that caused patient harm.
The EMT:
Provided appropriate medical care (oral glucose and transport)
The patient recovered
No harm resulted from not providing a blanket
However, the EMT's statement reflects:
Disrespect toward the patient
Lack of compassion
Unprofessional conduct
Why B is correct (Breach of ethics):
NREMT standards emphasize professionalism and patient respect:
EMTs are expected to treat all patients with dignity, empathy, and respect Ethical violations occur when providers demonstrate unprofessional attitudes or disregard for patient well- being This situation reflects a violation of ethical standards, not legal negligence.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A). Breach of duty: Requires failure to provide care that leads to harm; care was appropriately provided.
C). Negligence: Requires duty, breach, causation, and damages; no patient harm occurred.
D). Battery: Involves unauthorized physical contact; not applicable here.
Exact Extracts:
"EMS providers must demonstrate professionalism and respect toward all patients."
"Ethical conduct includes compassion and appropriate attitude."
"Negligence requires proof of harm resulting from a breach of duty."
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - EMS Operations (Ethics and Professionalism) NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) - Legal and Ethical Responsibilities Prehospital Emergency Care (EMT) - Medical, Legal, and Ethical Issues
NEW QUESTION # 170
What are the components of the START triage system?
- A. Immediate, delayed, expectant
- B. Respirations, perfusion, mental status
- C. General impression, airway, bleeding
- D. Airway, breathing, circulation
Answer: B
Explanation:
START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) is a triage method taught by the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians for use in mass-casualty incidents. START allows rescuers to quickly prioritize patients based on the severity of their conditions using objective criteria that can be assessed in under 60 seconds.
The correct components of the START system are Respirations, Perfusion, and Mental Status (RPM), making Option D correct. EMTs first assess whether the patient is breathing and evaluate respiratory rate. Next, perfusion is assessed by checking radial pulse or capillary refill. Finally, mental status is evaluated by determining whether the patient can follow simple commands.
Option A describes elements of a general patient assessment, not START triage.
Option B refers to the primary assessment sequence, not mass-casualty triage.
Option C lists triage categories rather than assessment components.
NREMT emphasizes START triage as a rapid, standardized approach to manage large numbers of patients efficiently while maximizing survivability.
NEW QUESTION # 171
You have achieved ROSC (Return of Spontaneous Circulation) in a 77-year-old female. She remains unresponsive and her vital signs are BP 94/58, P 82, and R 18. In what position should she be placed?
- A. Head elevated 45°
- B. Trendelenburg
- C. Supine
- D. Left lateral recumbent
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
AfterROSCin an unresponsive patient, theleft lateral recumbent position(also called the recovery position) is preferred to:
* Maintain an open airway
* Prevent aspiration if vomiting occurs
* Promote drainage of secretions
Supine or Trendelenburg positions increase the risk of aspiration. Elevating the head to 45° may reduce intracranial pressure, but it's not standard post-ROSC care in an unresponsive patient unless airway protection is ensured.
References:
NREMT Cardiology Guidelines - Post-Resuscitation Care
American Heart Association BLS/ACLS Algorithms - ROSC Protocol
EMS Education Standards - Transport Positioning
NEW QUESTION # 172
If a deep vein thrombosis breaks free and enters the lungs, will it likely lodge in the pulmonary artery or the pulmonary vein, and what pathology would occur?
- A. The pulmonary vein, and would cause a rapid decrease in respirations.
- B. The pulmonary artery, and would cause a rapid decrease in respirations.
- C. The pulmonary vein, and would prevent blood from entering the lungs for gas exchange.
- D. The pulmonary artery, and would prevent blood from entering the lungs for gas exchange.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The pulmonary artery, and would prevent blood from entering the lungs for gas exchange.
When a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) dislodges, it becomes an embolus and travels through the venous system to the right side of the heart and then into the pulmonary arteries. This results in a pulmonary embolism (PE).
The embolus will lodge in the pulmonary artery or its branches, not the pulmonary veins. The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood away from the lungs to the heart, so a clot from the venous system cannot reach them directly.
The primary problem caused by a pulmonary embolism is:
* Obstruction of blood flow to portions of the lung
* Impaired perfusion for gas exchange
This leads to a mismatch where air may still reach the alveoli, but blood cannot, preventing effective oxygenation.
According to NREMT-aligned EMT educational material:
* "A pulmonary embolism blocks blood flow in the pulmonary circulation."
* "This prevents adequate gas exchange in the affected portions of the lung." Why the other options are incorrect:
* A: While respiratory distress can occur, the key pathology is blocked perfusion, not simply a decrease in respirations.
* C & D: Incorrect because emboli from DVT travel to the pulmonary arteries, not the pulmonary veins.
Exact Extracts:
* "Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot blocks a pulmonary artery."
* "This blockage prevents blood from reaching the alveoli for gas exchange."
* "Clots typically originate in the deep veins of the legs."
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Cardiovascular Emergencies
NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) - Medical/Cardiology Standard EMT Text (aligned with NREMT): Cardiovascular and Respiratory Emergencies
NEW QUESTION # 173
After an unsuccessful resuscitation of a child, you should inform the parents of the child ' s condition by stating:
- A. "I'm sorry for your loss."
- B. "We were unable to save your child."
- C. "We did everything we could."
- D. "Your child has died."
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. "Your child has died."
In EMS practice, especially in emotionally sensitive situations such as the death of a child, communication must be:
Clear
Direct
Honest
Unambiguous
Best practice guidelines in NREMT-aligned EMS communication emphasize that providers should avoid vague or indirect language when delivering death notifications.
Why B is correct:
It uses clear, direct language without ambiguity
It avoids confusion or false hope
It ensures the family fully understands the situation
NREMT-aligned guidance states:
"Use simple, direct language when informing survivors of death."
"Avoid euphemisms such as 'passed away' or vague statements."
Why the other options are incorrect:
A). "We were unable to save your child."This is vague and may leave room for misunderstanding or false hope.
C). "I'm sorry for your loss."This expresses sympathy but does not clearly state that the child has died.
D). "We did everything we could."This is supportive but avoids directly communicating death.
Exact Extracts (NREMT-aligned EMT educational references):
"Be honest and direct when communicating death."
"Avoid vague statements that may confuse family members."
"Use clear terms such as 'died' rather than euphemisms."
Clinical Priority Summary:
When delivering death notifications, EMTs must use clear and direct language, making "Your child has died" the most appropriate statement.
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - EMS Operations (Communication & Documentation) NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) AAOS Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured (NREMT-aligned)
NEW QUESTION # 174
An 8-year-old female is drooling, incontinent, and her eyes are watery. Her father tells you that she was playing in the garden. You should suspect
- A. organophosphate poisoning.
- B. anthrax.
- C. a bee sting.
- D. an anticholinergic reaction.
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question is pointing you toward recognizing a toxidrome , specifically the cholinergic toxidrome . The key symptoms here- drooling, watery eyes (lacrimation), and incontinence -are classic findings associated with organophosphate exposure , which is commonly found in pesticides used in gardens.
A helpful EMT memory aid is "SLUDGE" (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, Gastrointestinal upset, Emesis). This patient already shows multiple SLUDGE signs, which strongly indicates organophosphate poisoning .
So when you see a patient with excessive secretions + exposure to a garden/chemicals , the correct suspicion is organophosphate poisoning .
NEW QUESTION # 175
A 31-year-old patient has an open femur fracture and an unstable pelvis after falling 15 feet. They are conscious and responsive to verbal stimuli. The vital signs are BP 86/42, P 136, R 24, and SpO# 92% on room air. The patient has which of the following types of shock? Select the two correct options.
- A. Obstructive
- B. Hypovolemic
- C. Decompensated
- D. Distributive
- E. Compensated
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
This is a classic presentation of hypovolemic shock due to traumatic blood loss (open femur fracture, pelvic instability). Indicators include:
* Low BP (86/42) = hypotension
* High pulse (P 136) = compensation
* Mental status decline (responsive only to voice) = indicates decompensated shock Obstructive and distributive shock are not applicable. Compensated shock would show normal BP and alert mental status.
References:
NREMT Shock Management and Trauma Guidelines
National EMS Education Standards - Hemorrhagic and Non-Hemorrhagic Shock AAOS EMT Textbook - Chapter: Types of Shock
NEW QUESTION # 176
......
NREMT Dumps - Learn How To Deal With The Exam Anxiety: https://pass4sure.testvalid.com/EMT-valid-exam-test.html