Latest [Nov 02, 2025] AACN CCRN-Adult Real Exam Dumps PDF
CCRN-Adult Practice Test Questions Updated 1000 Questions
NEW QUESTION # 174
A nurse on a critical care unit is implementing a newly adopted evidence-based intervention. A family member questions the necessity of the intervention. What is the BEST way for the nurse to respond?
- A. The nurse should research the intervention more in-depth
- B. The nurse should tell the family member to consult with the doctor
- C. The nurse should assure the family member that their loved one will be okay
- D. The nurse should explain the rationale behind the intervention and the evidence supporting it
Answer: D
Explanation:
The nurse's responsibility involves providing patient-centered care, which includes family education.
One of the reasons that nurses should remain current with their clinical knowledge is so that they can provide accurate information about new interventions and treatments. The nurse will only need to research the intervention more in-depth if they do not understand the rationale behind the newly adopted evidence-based intervention. If this is the situation, they should not have implemented the intervention in the first place. The nurse should not pass their responsibilities on to the doctor. While reassuring family members that their loved one will be okay may be therapeutic in some situations, it does not address the family member's questions.
NEW QUESTION # 175
Which of the following is NOT one of the eight competencies identified in the AACN Synergy Model?
- A. Critical thinking
- B. Clinical inquiry
- C. Systems thinking
- D. Caring practices
Answer: A
Explanation:
The AACN Synergy Model is the source of content for 20% of the CCRN, making this concept a central component of the test. The eight components of the AACN Synergy Model are:
* Clinical judgement
* Advocacy and moral agency
* Caring practices
* Collaboration
* Systems thinking
* Response to diversity
* Facilitation of learning
* Clinical inquiry
While critical thinking is an important nursing skill, it is not one of the core components of the AACN Synergy Mode, but is rather a foundational concept of many of these core competencies.
NEW QUESTION # 176
Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a potential cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
- A. Amyloidosis
- B. Coronary artery disease
- C. Scleroderma
- D. Myocardial fibrosis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Coronary artery disease is a potential cause of dilated cardiomyopathy, not restrictive cardiomyopathy.
Restrictive cardiomyopathy can be caused by myocardial fibrosis, amyloidosis, and scleroderma.
NEW QUESTION # 177
When treating a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), intravenous (IV) isotonic 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) administered prior to insulin administration will:
- A. Not impact blood glucose levels
- B. Lower serum potassium levels
- C. Dangerously raise serum sodium levels
- D. Dilute blood glucose levels
Answer: D
Explanation:
Replacement of intracellular and extracellular fluid volume deficits is a priority for DKA to restore intravascular volume and prevent hemodynamic instability. Normal saline (0.9%) should be administered at rapid rates until fluid volume is restored. This will dilute the blood glucose levels. They should fall by approximately 75 mg/dL per hour during this initial fluid resuscitation.
When serum glucose reaches 250 mg/dL, 0.9% NS can be changed to 5% dextrose with 0.45 NaCl (sodium chloride) at 150 to 200 mL/h.
NEW QUESTION # 178
Which of the following signs and symptoms of shock would the nurse NOT anticipate seeing in a patient who experienced an aortic rupture?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachypnea
- C. Pallor
- D. Tachycardia
Answer: A
Explanation:
Hypertension, not hypotension, is most likely to be present concurrently with an aortic rupture. Other signs and symptoms of shock are present and hypertension is the one exception. Other signs and symptoms consistent with shock that occur during aortic rupture include tachycardia, tachypnea, and pallor.
NEW QUESTION # 179
A patient in the critical care unit has an Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) result showing a pH of 7.27, PaCO2 of
60mmHg, and HCO3 of 29 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret this ABG result?
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a low pH (less than 7.35) and an elevated PaCO2 (greater than
45 mmHg) in the presence of a normal or compensatory elevated HCO3. Only an interpretation of respiratory acidosis correctly matches these values.
NEW QUESTION # 180
A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) has sustained a spinal cord injury (SCI) that is causing impaired thermoregulation. The critical care nurse understands that the body's inability to maintain normothermia indicates the injury's LIKELY location is at which of the following sites?
- A. At or above T6
- B. At or above C6
- C. At or above T2
- D. Affecting the brain, not the spine
Answer: A
Explanation:
Individuals with SCI at or above the T6 level are unable to conserve heat through vasoconstriction or shivering. Heat loss is compromised by the inability to sweat below the level of injury. These problems lead to altered thermoregulation.
While an injury in the brain can also affect thermoregulation, impaired thermoregulation can occur from spinal injuries at or above the T6 level.
NEW QUESTION # 181
Following an acute Myocardial Infarction (MI), which of the following classes of drugs may reduce mortality rates?
- A. Diuretics
- B. Beta-adrenergic blockers
- C. ACE inhibitors
- D. Nitrates
Answer: B
Explanation:
Beta-adrenergic blockers work by increasing ventricular filling time, thus decreasing heart rate; they are the only class of drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality in patients following an acute Myocardial Infarction (MI).
Diuretics (e.g., furosemide) and nitrates along with cardiac glycosides (e.g., digoxin) have been shown to improve symptoms but have not yet been shown to reduce mortality. ACE (Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme) inhibitors may be used in the medical management of a patient following an acute MI as they decrease afterload, but have also not been shown to reduce mortality.
NEW QUESTION # 182
The ICU nurse understands that an overdose on which of the following substances is MOST dangerous?
- A. Oxycodone
- B. Carfentanil
- C. Fentanyl
- D. Morphine
Answer: B
Explanation:
Carfentanil is a powerful opioid used as a tranquilizer for large animals, such as elephants and hippopotomuses. It is 100 times stronger than fentanyl and small amounts are fatal. Carfentanil in the powdered form can be fatal if inhaled, and it is important keep its hazardous nature in mind when handling the patient.
NEW QUESTION # 183
Which of the following organisms is MOST LIKELY to cause community-acquired pneumonias (CAPs)?
- A. Acinetobacter baumannii
- B. Escherichia coli
- C. Candida albicans
- D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Answer: D
Explanation:
CAPs are respiratory infections developed before hospitalization, while ventilator-associated pneumonias (VAPs) are acquired during hospitalization (hospital-acquired and ventilator-associated).
Streptococcus pneumoniae is most commonly associated with CAP, and does not commonly cause VAP.
Organisms that cause VAPs include Escherichia coli, Candida albicans, and Acinetobacter baumannii.
NEW QUESTION # 184
Which of the following interventions to promote patient sleep in the critical care environment is NOT evidence-based?
- A. Avoiding medications that disturb sleep patterns
- B. Reducing noise and lights to a level that the nurse finds to not be disturbing
- C. Assessing the patient's normal sleep patterns
- D. Mimicking the patient's normal bedtime routine to the greatest extent possible
Answer: B
Explanation:
Studies show that staff tends to tune out noises and lights in the critical care setting, and will normally underestimate the impact that these environmental factors will have on the patient. Assessing the patient's normal sleep patterns, mimicking the patient's normal bedtime routine to the greatest extent possible, and avoiding medications that disturb sleep patterns have all been shown to improve patients' sleep quality.
NEW QUESTION # 185
A 20-year-old man is unresponsive after drinking at a party, and his roommates brought him into the emergency department. Initial assessment reveals a decreased level of consciousness, with decreased response to stimuli. His initial laboratory results reveal a serum alcohol level of 420 mg/dL.
Current vital signs are: temperature: 97.8F (36.5C) rectally, HR: 120 beats/min, RR: 16 breaths/min, BP:
92/70 mm Hg, pulse oximetry 94% on room air
Which of the following is NOT a priority intervention at this time?
- A. Provide detoxification
- B. Administration of intravenous (IV) fluids
- C. Hemodynamic stabilization
- D. Toxicology screening for presence of other substances
Answer: D
Explanation:
Priority interventions for this patient include:
* maintenance of airway
* hemodynamic stabilization
* obtain and maintain intravenous access
* administer IV fluids
* provide detoxification
Information that would be helpful in guiding treatment includes amount and type of alcohol ingested and time frame since ingestion. Gastric lavage is best considered within 1 hour of ingestion. Toxicology screening isn't a priority, but would help to identify the presence of substances such as amphetamines, barbiturates, benzodiazepines, and narcotics. This information would be helpful to guide treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 186
Which of the following assessment findings would be consistent with a low platelet count from Heparin- Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
- A. Elevation in liver enzymes ALT and AST
- B. The presence of metabolic acidosis
- C. The presence of acute thrombosis development
- D. Decrease in neutrophils
Answer: C
Explanation:
Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) is an immune-mediated reaction to heparin resulting in the formation of antiplatelet antibodies which activate platelets and form clots. This then leads to platelet consumption and a precipitous drop in platelet count, resulting in clinical thrombosis (venous thrombosis is most common), due to the antibody to the heparin antigen destroying the platelets. When HIT is suspected, all heparin is stopped, and confirmatory testing for HIT antibodies is performed.
Treatment includes administration of direct thrombin inhibitors and patients should not receive heparin again.
Metabolic acidosis could cause a low platelet count, but not thrombosis development. Liver dysfunction and failure typically also manifests with low platelets, but not thrombosis. Thrombocytopenia and neutropenia are frequently present with bone marrow suppression, not with HIT.
NEW QUESTION # 187
Which of the following methods of evaluating a patient's understanding of teaching is the MOST simple and effective?
- A. Learning readiness method
- B. Educational session method
- C. Teach-back method
- D. Closed loop communication method
Answer: C
Explanation:
The teach-back method involves asking a patient to teach back the information they have just learned or to explain it in their own words. By using this method, the nurse can quickly evaluate how the patient has perceived the teaching and how well they understand it.
Closed loop communication is a communication technique (not a method) between healthcare providers, and involves repeating instructions verbatim. This is not an effective way of evaluating the efficacy of patient teaching.
Learning readiness refers to that moment in time when the learner (the patient) is able to comprehend and synthesize the information that is being relayed. Without learning readiness, teaching may not be useful. The nurse should ask the patient-specific questions to assess learning readiness prior to teaching.
This is not a method used to evaluate understanding.
An educational session is intended to teach the patient, family, and significant others what is needing to be relayed; it is not a method of evaluation.
NEW QUESTION # 188
Which of the following patients is MOST LIKELY to have Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Syndrome (HHS)?
- A. A patient with type 2 diabetes who is non-compliant with his medications
- B. A patient with diabetes insipidus
- C. A patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes
- D. A patient with type 1 diabetes who is non-compliant with his medications
Answer: A
Explanation:
Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Syndrome (HHS) is caused by severe hyperglycemia in which glucose is still able to enter the cells. This typically occurs in patients with type 2 diabetes, particularly if they are noncompliant with their medications. Patients with type 1 diabetes will be more likely to develop Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) than HHS. Diabetes insipidus does not cause HHS.
NEW QUESTION # 189
During their shift, a nurse realizes that a medication error occurred on the previous shift. The nurse responsible for the error is not currently on duty. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?
- A. Wait until the next time they see the responsible nurse, then discuss it with them
- B. Document the error and notify the physician immediately
- C. Call the responsible nurse at home and discuss it with them
- D. Ignore the error, as a significant amount of time has already passed
Answer: B
Explanation:
The nurse should first take action to promote patient safety. This involves ensuring the error is documented and that the physician has been notified. The error should not be ignored, as it could impact patient safety. Discussing the error with the responsible nurse is a correct response; however, discussing it with them will not promote patient safety to the extent that documenting the error and notifying the physician will.
NEW QUESTION # 190
A non-English speaking patient in the ICU seems to be uncomfortable due to pain. How should the nurse ensure that the patient's needs are addressed promptly?
- A. Use nonverbal cues to assess the patient's pain
- B. Arrange for a professional interpreter to facilitate communication
- C. Ask a hospital staff member who speaks the same language to translate
- D. Use the FACES scale to assess the patient's pain
Answer: B
Explanation:
Arrange for a professional interpreter to facilitate communication ensures that accurate and clear communication occurs between the patient and the nurse, ensuring the best patient care. Use nonverbal cues to assess the patient's pain is not the most accurate method of accessing pain. The FACES scale can be used to assess the patient's pain if the patient has been educated on how the scale works; however, without this education being provided and verified, the FACES scale cannot be used. A professional translator is preferred over a hospital staff member to ensure accurate translation occurs.
NEW QUESTION # 191
Which of the following statements is ACCURATE about Hospital-Aquired Infections (HAI)?
- A. HAIs have been identified as one of the most serious patient safety issues in healthcare
- B. A central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLA-BSI) is defined as the presence of bacteremia in a patient with an intravascular catheter with at least one positive blood culture, with or without clinical signs of infection
- C. Indwelling urinary catheters do not need to be inserted using sterile equipment
- D. Urine specimen collections should be obtained from the proximal end of an indwelling urinary catheter
Answer: A
Explanation:
HAIs are one of the most serious patient safety issues in healthcare today. Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CA-UTI) and CLA-BSI are two common HAIs that patients in critical units are at highest risk for. For this reason, indwelling urinary catheters should always be inserted using aseptic techniques and sterile equipment, and specimen collections obtained from the distal end of the catheter.
Characteristics of CLA-BSI include known bacteremia present, at least one positive blood culture, and clinical manifestations of infection (i.e., fever, chills, and/or hypotension), with no apparent source for the BSI except the catheter.
NEW QUESTION # 192
Which of the following statements MOST accurately describes Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)?
- A. Due to uncontrolled airway inflammation
- B. Characterized by high pulmonary artery pressures leading from the right side of the heart to the lungs
- C. Caused by chronic lung inflammation
- D. Acute onset of diffuse bilateral pulmonary infiltrates without increased cardiac size
Answer: D
Explanation:
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is characterized by non-cardiac pulmonary edema caused by increased alveolar-capillary membrane permeability. ARDS affects both lungs, and hypoxemia refractory to oxygenation is a hallmark of the condition. ARDS has a very high morbidity and mortality.
Signs and symptoms of ARDS include:
* Dyspnea
* Tachypnea (rates often > 40 breaths/min)
* Intercostal retractions
* Copious secretions
* Panic
* Crackles and/or wheezes
ARDS is not caused by chronic lung inflammation, rather acute inflammation within the lungs. Acute severe asthma exacerbations (not ARDS) are due to uncontrolled airway inflammation. Pulmonary hypertension is characterized by high pulmonary artery pressure leading from the right side of the heart to the lungs.
NEW QUESTION # 193
A patient with Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA) has been placed in isolation. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate transmission-based precaution for this patient?
- A. Contact-plus precautions
- B. Airborne precautions
- C. Droplet precautions
- D. Contact precautions
Answer: D
Explanation:
MRSA is spread by direct physical contact, hence contact precautions are the most suitable. Airborne, droplet, and contact-plus precautions are not appropriate for preventing the spread of MRSA.
NEW QUESTION # 194
Which of the following would be the intervention of choice to treat bleeding complications associated with the use of warfarin?
- A. Transfuse platelets
- B. Administer oral rivaroxaban
- C. Administer oral apixaban
- D. Transfuse fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Bleeding is the major complication associated with the use of warfarin, occurring in up to 29% of patients receiving the drug. Bleeding complications include ecchymoses, hemoptysis, and epistaxis, as well as fatal or life-threatening hemorrhage.
Warfarin prevents the conversion of vitamin K back to its active form from the vitamin K epoxide, impairing the formation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. It essentially inhibits the production of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.
The effects of warfarin can be reversed with oral doses of vitamin K and with transfusion of FFP to replace vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in patients without major bleeding.
In patients with major bleeding, 4-factor prothrombin complex concentrate (KCentra) plus vitamin K may be preferred over FFP.
Platelets are not affected by warfarin, and thus a platelet transfusion is not warranted. Rivaroxaban and apixaban are oral factor Xa inhibitors, indicated for venous thromboembolism (VTE) prophylaxis, or prophylaxis of embolism or cerebrovascular accident (CVA).
NEW QUESTION # 195
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